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isn't it an anachronism (and still wrong) to say that a Silesian was a German? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 99.224.220.52 (talk) 00:04, 4 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Always a basic problem, but it seems he was a product of German institutions - so, is there a better way of putting it? Kbthompson (talk) 16:31, 28 June 2008 (UTC)[reply]
Well, it could just be changed to say that he was Silesian, I guess. This is what is given by the Library of Congress, in fact. KGilltalkemail 01:02, 24 August 2010 (UTC)[reply]